AP DSC 2025 School Assistant (SA) Physics Paper Mock Test

  • Physics EM
  • Biology EM
  • Child development and Pedagogy
  • Maths English Medium
  • Methodology Maths
  • General Knowledge & Current Affairs
  • English
  • Methodology English
  • Telugu
  • Methodology Telugu
  • Uncategorized

Physics EM

1. These radiations are responsible for global warming due to green house gasses.

Question 1 of 100

Physics EM

2. A true statement which always justifies the characterization of scientific concepts. ................

Question 2 of 100

Physics EM

3. Octet rule is not obeyed by ...................

Question 3 of 100

Physics EM

4. The important stage in the production of video signal of an object is ...............

Question 4 of 100

Physics EM

5. Among the following gases which is not in the list of greenhouse gasses?

Question 5 of 100

Physics EM

6. The experience that is more concrete than educational tour is .........

Question 6 of 100

Physics EM

7. The astronomers, who developed Lunisolar calendar belong to this country.

Question 7 of 100

Physics EM

8. The mass of a bullet is 0.3 kg. What is the force required to bring 45 m/sec2 acceleration in it?

Question 8 of 100

Physics EM

9. Identify the defect in constructing this multiple choice question.
Q. The boiling point of water is .............
  1. 0 degrees
  2. 100 degrees
  3. 373 K
  4. 273 K

Question 9 of 100

Physics EM

10. The correct statement of the rate of reaction is .....................

Question 10 of 100

Physics EM

11. The symbol of P-N junction diode is ...........

Question 11 of 100

Physics EM

12. The number of moles of methane requires to produce 22 grams of carbon dioxide gas in combustion process at S.T.P is .............

Question 12 of 100

Physics EM

13. At a constant temperature a gas 'x' occupies y liters of volume at pressure P. If the pressure on its is increased ten times the volume of gas is ............

Question 13 of 100

Physics EM

14. The ceramics are made from .............

Question 14 of 100

Physics EM

15. The example of moderate reaction is

Question 15 of 100

Physics EM

16. The person who criticized Bloom's Taxonomy of Educational Objectives as "The classification of values is not so satisfactory" is ............

Question 16 of 100

Physics EM

17. Blow a balloon for a volume 'V' at temperature 'T' and tie it. If the temperature is doubled, the volume of balloon (assume pressure is constant) is ............

Question 17 of 100

Physics EM

18. Artificial radioactive series among the following is .............

Question 18 of 100

Physics EM

19. In the following the correct statement for Zeeman effect is...............

Question 19 of 100

Physics EM

20.

Question 20 of 100

Physics EM

21. If the Earth's magnetic field at equator is about 4 x 10-5 Tesla and radius of Earth 6.4 x 106 m, the approximate magnetic moment is ..........

1.5 x 1023 A-M2

Question 21 of 100

Physics EM

22. The incorrect statement among the following is ............

Question 22 of 100

Physics EM

23. The principle of hydrogen bomb is ..............

Question 23 of 100

Physics EM

24. The concept "knowledge for the sake of knowledge" can mostly be achieved through this value.

Question 24 of 100

Physics EM

25. The correct chemical equation for dissociation of water into hydrogen and oxygen is...........

Question 25 of 100

Physics EM

26. The second floor of a house is 6 meters above ground level. How much is required to lift a 300 kg refrigerator to second floor?

Question 26 of 100

Physics EM

27. The magnetic distance 0.5m from the center of a short bar magnet on equilateral line of bar magnet of length 5cm and pole strength 3 X 10-3 amp. meter.

Question 27 of 100

Physics EM

28. The project involving students finding the thickness of different kinds if threads is .....

Question 28 of 100

Physics EM

29. 2 moles of a solute is present in 10 kgs of solvent. What is the molality of the solution?

Question 29 of 100

Physics EM

30. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the ascending order with respect to their energies.
X-ray; UV rays; γ rays; radio waves

Question 30 of 100

Physics EM

31. Among the following which have coordinate covalent bonds?

Question 31 of 100

Physics EM

32. Curdling of milk is ................

Question 32 of 100

Physics EM

33. Among the following which has  conformers?

Question 33 of 100

Physics EM

34. The downward pressure of water tank having 1000kg of water and 500cm3 of its base area is ...........

Question 34 of 100

Physics EM

35. 100 gm of water lie at 100 ° C. The amount of heat required to change from liquid to gaseous phase is .....................

Question 35 of 100

Physics EM

36. A body weights 30 grams in air, 20 grams in water and 25 grams in a liquid. Then the relative density of liquid is ........................

Question 36 of 100

Physics EM

37. Choose the correct statement.

Question 37 of 100

Biology EM

38. The crushed waste from sugarcane stem is called ...............

Question 38 of 100

Biology EM

39. Identify the photoautotrophic organisms.

Question 39 of 100

Biology EM

40. The bone bends but does not break in children. This is usually called as ..............

Question 40 of 100

Biology EM

41. The total number of peripheral nerves in man is ................

Question 41 of 100

Biology EM

42. The process of entering of pollutants in a food chain is known as ...............

Question 42 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

43. Nishanth while preparing for examination first studied Hindi and Sanskrit. In Hindi examination he is unable to recollect only Sanskrit. This is due to..........

Question 43 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

44. The third step in observational learning is........

Question 44 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

45. The mental development of a child is slow. So his moral development also become slow. The principle of development is related to this is ............

Question 45 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

46. In experimental method 'controlled group' means............

Question 46 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

47. One of the following is not in the sub tests of Wechsler intelligence scale for children.

Question 47 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

48. One of the following is a social reinforcements specially for mentally retarded children.

Question 48 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

49. Following is not related to the computer aided learning as introduced in primary schools.

Question 49 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

50. A school management has conducted selection test for admission of a student into 7th class. As per RTE 2009, they should be punished with penalty of ............

Question 50 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

51. One of the following contrary in relation to NCF 2005.

Question 51 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

52. Sankar unable in answer the questions in an interview. Sankar started weeping in the interview hall like a child. This defense mechanism is related to........

Question 52 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

53. In enhancing speaking ability of children with hearing loss, the trainer shouldn't............

Question 53 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

54. As per RTE 2009, the minimum number of days specified for classes 6 to 8 are ........

Question 54 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

55. In one school are learning science by doing experiments on thir own. Then their memory is ..............

Question 55 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

56. "The wine land social maturity scale" is used to access ......

Question 56 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

57. Sitaram, a school teacher, never takes the opinions of others. He takes decisions by himself and instruct the students to follow. Sitaram is a...........

Question 57 of 100

Child development and Pedagogy

58. One of the following is an overlapping stage.

Question 58 of 100

Maths English Medium

59. Scale on y axis of the bar graph representing dropouts in a school is 3cm = 2 members. If in a particular year there are 17 dropouts then length of the bar is ...............

Question 59 of 100

Maths English Medium

60. A car travels 283(1/2) km in 4(1/3) hours. the same travels 256(1/2) km in 3(1/3) hours. the average speed of the car is …………..

Question 60 of 100

Maths English Medium

61. If the price of sugar increased by 10% from the previous month, then the percentage of reducing the consumption in order to maintain the same expenditure is ……………….

Question 61 of 100

Maths English Medium

62. Only 1 is the line of symmetry for ………

Question 62 of 100

Methodology Maths

63. Pedagogy is the science and art of …………….

Question 63 of 100

Methodology Maths

64. The institution which determines the quality benchmarks for accreditation is ……..

Question 64 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

65. Famous musician T. R. Mahalingam anf N. Ramani are associated with .........

Question 65 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

66. Total number of gold medals won by India in 17th Asian Games are ...........

Question 66 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

67. Central excise day is observed on ..............

Question 67 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

68. The author of the book ' Playing it My Way' is..............

Question 68 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

69. The famous 'kalighat Paintings' belongs to following state.

Question 69 of 100

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

70. Kunchikal Falls are located in following district of Karnataka.

Question 70 of 100

English

71. Identify the correct pair of words / phrases that can fill in the blanks in the sentence.
Father to son : Your exams ........... Are you studying ..............?

Question 71 of 100

English

72. (a) Vimla likes singing.
(b) She likes dancing
Identify the correct sentence you will get if combine the above sentences.

Question 72 of 100

English

73. What do you say when you see a man in eight feet tall?

Question 73 of 100

English

74. Read the sentence.
I can recall those happy events.
The word underlined shows........

Question 74 of 100

English

75. Identify the antonym of 'harmony'.

Question 75 of 100

English

76. Identify the two words / Phrases which can fill in the blanks in the sentence.
He ............ when the bell..............

Question 76 of 100

English

77. Read the following passage.

A passenger, named Ravi, was travelling from Shimla to Delhi. had box of 30 apples in his luggage. The conductor asked him to pay for the luggage (apples). Ravi argued the apples were given to him by his friend in Shimla for the members of his family. He also said they were not for in delhi.

The conductor did not listen. He insisted on payment of Rs. 100 as luggage fare. Ravi repeated his argument. The conductor repeated his demand, stopped the bus and asked Ravi to get off.

Just then a cleaver passenger took Ravi's permission and distributed the apples to thirty passengers on the bus. The dispute ended. The conductor could not say anything but start the bus.

When the bus reached Delhi, the passengers put all the apples into the box and Ravi took them home.

Now answer the following questions correctly to show your comprehension.
  • Why did conductor ask Ravi to buy a luggage ticket? Because he thought..........

Question 77 of 100

English

78. Which of the following words does not come under medicinal plants?

Question 78 of 100

English

79. Identify the sentence which contains a gerund.

Question 79 of 100

English

80. Identify the correct word can fill in the blank in the sentense.
The miller ............. his son into the donkey.

Question 80 of 100

English

81. Identify the 'synonym' of the word 'very small'.

Question 81 of 100

English

82. Read the sentence.
I must stop at the traffic lights.

Question 82 of 100

English

83. Identify the correct sentence.

Question 83 of 100

English

84. What is the color 'azure'?

Question 84 of 100

English

85. Identify the correct suffix for the words given below.
Word                           Suffix(a) dought                   (i) ness
(b) high                       (ii) ful
(iii) ment

Question 85 of 100

Methodology English

86. Now English materials are for..........

Question 86 of 100

Methodology English

87. In the 'Deductive' method of teaching grammar, the teacher .............

Question 87 of 100

Methodology English

88. Identify the correct statement on teaching reading in English.

Question 88 of 100

Telugu

89. విశ్వఖ్యాతిగాంచిన 'విష్ణుశర్మ' కథాకావ్యం

Question 89 of 100

Telugu

90. సంఘటనల మధ్య సంబంధాన్ని కళాత్మకంగా

Question 90 of 100

Telugu

91. చతుర్థీ తత్పురుషసమాసానికి ఒక ఉదాహరణ

Question 91 of 100

Telugu

92. 'పక్షము' అన్న పదానికి వికృతి

Question 92 of 100

Telugu

93. మొట్టమొదటి తెలుగు పద్య శాసనం

Question 93 of 100

Telugu

94. ఒక జాతి ప్రాక్త సంస్కృతి కాన్పించేది

Question 94 of 100

Telugu

95. వ్యవహర్తల సాంస్కృతిక, వైజ్ఞానిక ఐకమత్యానికి సంకేతమైన భాష

Question 95 of 100

Telugu

96. 'అనువాదము' అనేపదం 'పద్' ధాతువుకు సంబందించిన 'పద్' అనే ధాతువుకి గల అర్ధం

Question 96 of 100

Telugu

97. కింది పెరాను చదివి కింద వున్న ప్రశ్నలకు సరైన సమాధానాలను గుర్తించండి.

భారత రచనలో తిక్కన శైలి వర్ణత్మకంగా కథనాత్మకంగా సంభాషణాత్మకంగా కొనసాగింది. నన్నయ కథా కథనంలో సాంద్రతను కనబరిస్తే, పద్యరచనలో బిగువు చూపటం తిక్కన ప్రత్యేకత. నన్నయ నాల్గయిదు కథలను బృహత్కథగా కూర్చి రసానందాన్ని కలిగిస్తే, సన్నివేశాల కూర్పు ద్వారా తిక్కన రసాభ్యుధయాన్ని సాధిస్తాడు. నన్నయ గధ్యాన్ని పధ్యంగా తీర్చిదిద్దితే తిక్కన పాధ్యాన్ని గధ్యపథంలో పయనింపజేశాడు. తిక్కనగారి పధ్యము లెల్ల కొంచము మార్చుకొని వచన శైలిలో కూర్చుకొని పోగా నదిముక మహాగాధ్య గ్రంధము". అవుతుందని మధునాపంతులు సత్యనారాయణ శాస్త్రి ఉగ్గడించారు. తిక్కన వచనంలో ఉపమారంకారాలు - ముక్యంగా మాలోపములు ఎక్కువగా కనిపిస్తాయి. వృత్తప్రయోగంలో కూడా తిక్కన ప్రయోగశీలత గోచరిస్తుంది.
  • తిక్కన పద్యాన్ని మలచిన విధం

Question 97 of 100

Telugu

98. 'పర్వం' పదానికి గల నానార్ధాలలో ఒకటి

Question 98 of 100

Methodology Telugu

99. ఉపాధ్యాయుడు తాను చదువుతూ విద్యార్థులచే చదివించే పఠనం

Question 99 of 100

Uncategorized

100.

-----------→x

Question 100 of 100


 

*Note: ప్రతి పరీక్షలో మీరు కొత్త ప్రశ్నలతో పరీక్షను ఎదుర్కోవలసి ఉంటుంది, కాబట్టి మాక్ టెస్ట్ -1, మాక్ టెస్ట్ -2 మరియు మొదలైనవి సృష్టించాల్సిన అవసరం లేదు, పరీక్షను పూర్తి చేసి పేజీ రిఫ్రెష్ చేయండి , ఇదే ప్రాక్టీస్ టెస్ట్ మీకు కొత్త / వేరే ప్రశ్నలతో మొదలవుతుంది.